In our Riposte section, we gave you the opportunity to ask tough and sensible questions. Many of you did.
From our RIPOSTE section
Question #1: Isn’t God an unknowable essence?
Answer #1: No.
There may be things about God that are mysteries to us, just like there may be things about women that are plain mysteries to men; but that doesn’t prevent men from knowing their wives.
God Himself wants us to know Him.
“Let not the wise man boast in his wisdom, let not the mighty man boast in his might, let not the rich man boast in his riches, but let him who boasts boast in this, that he understands and knows me, that I am the Lord who practices steadfast love, justice, and righteousness in the earth. For in these things I delight, declares the Lord.” Jeremiah 9: 23-24
“This is eternal life, that they know you the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent.” John 17:3
God wants us so much to know Him that He became flesh and dwelt amongst us in the person of Jesus Christ.
“And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.” John 1:14
You can know God. Click here. Then He’ll come and make His abode with you.
“My Father will love them, and we will come to them and make our home with them.” John 14:23
Question #2: To be consistent in your article The Trinity Doctrine Is Not In The Bible, if you conclude that the Trinity is not part of the Godhead, thus a lie, and that the Holy Spirit is not a person nor a sentient being, but is a thing, then you should change your own use of “he” to “it”, especially as said doctrine destroys the true Gospel of Jesus Christ.
Answer #2: First, the fact that mainstream Christianity does not adhere to the truth that the Holy Spirit is not God and does not form a Trinity with the Father and the Son in no way destroys the gospel of Jesus Christ, which is salvation in Christ alone – a totally separate disputation. You are simply forcing one onto the other in order to make a false point.
Second, we never concluded that the Holy Spirit was not sentient and that He was a Thing. Your argument of He or It is absurd. Why?
a. God is not a person either, in the sense that we understand a person to be a human. He is God. A Spirit. So which pronoun would you use for HIM?
“God is spirit, and his worshipers must worship Him in spirit and in truth.” John 4:24
b. Angels are not persons either. They’re spirits, neither male nor female – with wings, to boot. So which pronoun would use to describe one? He, She, or It?
“At the resurrection people will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven.” Matthew 22:30
Consequently, we’ll stick with He for the Holy Ghost, because the Power that He carries is to be respected as Christ succinctly pointed out.
“And everyone who speaks a word against the Son of Man, it will be forgiven him; but he who blasphemes against the Holy Spirit, it will not be forgiven him.” Luke 12:10
Since when can one blaspheme against an It or a Thing? The Holy Spirit is the one who guarantees our eternal inheritance, and a “Thing” is incapable of doing so.
“…the Holy Spirit of promise, who is given as a pledge of our inheritance, with a view to the redemption of God’s own possession, to the praise of His glory.” Ephesians 1:14
“And do not bring sorrow to God’s Holy Spirit by the way you live. Remember, he has identified you as his own, guaranteeing that you will be saved on the day of redemption.” Ephesians 4:3
Therefore you better be careful AND respectful.
“‘Ananias, why has Satan filled your heart to lie to the Holy Spirit…’ And as he heard these words, Ananias fell down and breathed his last…” Acts 5:3-5
From our RIPOSTE section
Question: In many of your articles you talk about hearing the voice of God, or that God would “show us” how to go about doing a certain thing. How do you hear God’s voice?
Answer: He tugs your heart gently and repeatedly until His will permeates your spirit – that is if you’re truly open to hearing Him. For His will to really permeate you, you have to be faithful in applying His commandments. After all, if you can’t be obedient to His written word, how will you be obedient to hearing His voice?
The more you study the bible, the more the Holy Spirit helps you cleave to the truth. The more you live out God’s commandments, the more sensitive you become to His guidance and His voice, the more cleansed your mind, the more attuned your soul, and the more fruitful your work.
Delve in our CHURCH REFORM series, which will get you on the right track to follow His ways, read the bible, spend time in prayer, and constantly apply what you learn. Then His voice will become as clear as a bell to your soul. We can confidently say, “We know!”
The Kingdom Of God
From our RIPOSTE section
Question #1: If the Kingdom of God was on Earth right now, wouldn’t the King take care of so many atrocious people himself? Don’t the Scriptures say that He would rule them with an iron rod? Jesus himself told Pilate that if His Kingdom was of this world more than twelve legions of angels would be fighting for Him. So now that His Kingdom is finally established, nothing happens and sin and injustice run rampant?
Answer #1: Jesus left us Christians in charge. WE are the salt of the earth. WE are supposed to take care of these problems by doing what God commanded, and by inspiring and helping people everywhere to look up to God for solutions.
“Truly, truly, I say to you, he who believes in Me, the works that I do, he will do also; and greater works than these he will do; because I go to the Father. Whatever you ask in My name, that will I do, so that the Father may be glorified in the Son. If you ask Me anything in My name, I will do it.” John 14:12-14
As to “Jesus ruling with an iron rod,” that verse is referring to how Jesus keeps His people in line, away from sins. Read When Bad Things Happen to see how He does it.
In reference to the Kingdom of God and Pilate question, here’s Jesus:
“When asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, ‘The kingdom of God will not come with observable signs. Nor will people say, ‘Here it is,’ or ‘There it is,’ because the kingdom of God is within you.’ ” Luke 17:20,21
You are thinking like the Judahites of Old who wanted a military-style Kingdom. DON’T. God’s Kingdom is of the Spirit, which first and foremost changes the sinful nature of man and in turn allows positive change to take place.
Last, you say that sin is running rampant.
It is because:
1) many Christians have been poisoned with the heretical Rapture Doctrine, and consequently have given up on being the salt of the earth;
“You are the salt of the earth. But if the salt loses its saltiness, how can it be made salty again? It is no longer good for anything, except to be thrown out and trampled underfoot.” Matthew 5:13
2) the church has been hijacked by unscrupulous men peddling false dogmas that are contrary to the Lord’s commands;
“There will be men who abandon the true faith and allow themselves to be spiritually seduced by teachings of the devil, teachings given by men who are lying hypocrites, whose consciences are as dead as seared flesh.” 1 Timothy 4:1,2
3) many refuse to go through the narrow door that leads to life;
“But small is the gate and narrow the road that leads to life, and only a few find it.” Matthew 7:14
4) the weed is growing with the wheat.
“Jesus said, ‘if you pull the weeds now, you might uproot the wheat with them. Let both grow together until the harvest. At that time I will tell the harvesters: First collect the weeds and tie them in bundles to be burned; then gather the wheat and bring it into my barn.’” Matthew 13: 29,20
When is the harvest? Read Where Is Satan Now?
Question #2: When did the Kingdom of God on earth as stated by Jesus start?
Answer #2: It started with the birth of our Lord, who was born King.
“Where is the one who has been born king of the Judahites? We saw his star when it rose and have come to worship him.” Matthew 2:2
His dominion throughout the earth began spreading “officially” or “widely” on Pentecost in 30 AD. However, Jesus waited 40 years for the disobedient Hebrews to accept Him. Then, in 70 AD, He shut down the Old Covenant and overthrew Satan as god of this world, thus solidifying Himself as sole potentate.
“To Him be dominion forever and ever. Amen.” 1 Peter 5:11
His dominion is currently in effect. See Where Is Satan Now?
Question #3: a. Jesus expressly said that His kingdom was not of this world.
b. When the Devil tempted Christ and told him to bow to him in order to rule the kingdoms of the world, Jesus refused the kingdoms. So why would Jesus want to establish his kingdom on earth when he refused to take it from the Devil?
c. This World is not fixable. All we have is faith and prayer. I do try to make myself perfect which is vain.
Answer #3: a. Jesus’s Kingdom may not be OF this world, but He came to establish it IN this world.
“From that time Jesus began to preach and say, ‘Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.’” Matthew 4:17
b. Jesus did not come to get anything from Satan, he came to destroy his works.
“The Son of God appeared for this purpose, to destroy the works of the devil.” 1 John 3:8
So why would Jesus accept anything from him? After he defeated the devil, His Heavenly Father gave Him everything.
“For God ‘has put everything under his feet.’” 1 Corinthians 15:27
c. God’s desire for us in this world is to do His will, which is to do His business until He returns.
“Occupy until I come.” Luke 19:13
And if this world is not fixable, then Jesus died for nothing. Of what use are your faith and prayers then?
Jesus came to fix mankind, so the world can in turn be fixed. Are you fixed? You don’t think you’re perfect?
“Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect.” Matthew 5: 48
As perfection takes hold, each man’s world in turn becomes perfect through the workings of Christ in our lives. And without said PERFECTION, we will not inherit the truly new PERFECT earth that Jesus will bring forth, because only PERFECT beings can inhabit a PERFECT place.
“Without holiness no one will see the Lord.” Hebrews 12: 14
“Then I saw a new heaven and a new earth; for the first heaven and the first earth passed away…” Revelation 21:1
“Blessed are the meek, for they will inherit the earth.” Matthew 5:5
Question #4: “Truly, truly, I say to you, he who believes in Me, the works that I do, he will do also; and greater works than these he will do; because I go to the Father. Whatever you ask in My name, that will I do, so that the Father may be glorified in the Son. If you ask Me anything in My name, I will do it.” John 14:12-14
In light of what Jesus said, what are these greater works of the Kingdom?
Answer #4: Each individual must go to God and find out the works he must do for the kingdom. However, even a cursory look would show how Jesus’s disciples “turned the world upside down” (Acts 17:6), and how Christians afterwards greatly managed to change the world from the time Jesus was around to today.
Question #5: What does the following verse mean:
“Truly I tell you, some who are standing here will not taste death before they see the Son of Man coming in his kingdom.” Matthew 16:28
Answer #5: Christ’s Kingdom was fully established in 70 AD, after He shut down the Old Covenant.
“By calling this covenant ‘new,’ he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and outdated will soon disappear.” Hebrew 8:13
Once the Old Covenant disappeared and Satan was captured and thrown into the Abyss, Christ fully came into His Kingdom, since previously Satan was god of this world – no more.
“The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers…” 2 Corinthians 4:4
Therefore, from 30 AD, when Christ uttered these words, to 70 AD, some did not taste death and witnessed the full establishment of Christ’s New Covenant, along with the end of Satan’s dominion and the termination of the Old Covenant.
From our RIPOSTE section
Question: On one hand the bible says to fear God, and on the other it says that perfect love has no fear. Isn’t that a contradiction?
Answer: No, it’s not a contradiction because you did not place those verses in context.
1) “Fear God and keep his commandments.” Ecclesiastes 12:13
The reason we should fear God is because when we disobey His commandments the consequences will surely come, just like when a disobedient child is punished by a parent. Therefore, that fear is actually an expectation of God’s judgment of our disobedience. And while we’re still alive, His judgment is not geared towards destroying us, but towards correcting us so that we may experience life to the fullest.
“The fear of the LORD leads to life, So that one may sleep satisfied, untouched by evil.” Proverbs 19:13
2) “There is no fear in love. But perfect love drives out fear, because fear has to do with punishment. The one who fears is not made perfect in love… This is how we know that we love the children of God: by loving God and carrying out his commands.” 1 John 4:18, 5:2
Perfect love knows no fear because perfect love has been accomplished following God’s commandments. Once that stage of perfection is achieved, there is no more fear to contend with; and whatever unpleasant things may come in our lives will be accepted grounded in faith and not in fear, even when those unpleasant things come not because of any command we may have broken. Many times God is simply testing us to make us better still, since only the truly perfected ones will inherit the perfect new world that Jesus will create at the end of time.
“Count it all joy, my brothers, when you meet trials of various kinds, for you know that the testing of your faith produces steadfastness. And let steadfastness have its full effect, that you may be perfect and complete, lacking in nothing.” James 1: 2-4
From our RIPOSTE section
Question #1: Why is fornication a sin against one’s own body?
Answer #1: Once you become a Christian, it is not just your soul that is given to God but your body as well.
God intended sex for husband and wife to produce children, itself a great spiritual act whereby God is working with mankind to fill the earth. However, fornication is sex outside these God-given parameters.
By fornicating, itself a selfish pleasure, the body is thus defiled, because the commandment of God regarding sex is made of no effect and DEBASED (or defiled), which in turn defiles the body that commits it.
There’s no other circumstance where one uses his whole body to sin thus.
“I appeal to you therefore, brothers, by the mercies of God, to present your bodies as a living sacrifice, holy and acceptable to God, which is your spiritual worship. Do not be conformed to this world, but be transformed by the renewal of your mind…” Romans 12:1-2
Question #2: Does the Greek word porneia really translate as fornication? Because some sources do translate it as prostitution, as in sex for money.
If so, isn’t Matthew 19:9 wrong when it says, “Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.”
Shouldn’t it be “except it be for prostitution”?
Answer #2: The Greek word porneia derives from porneno, which has a literal meaning of “indulging lust,” and which is also the root word for the English word porno. So it’s not just sex for money, though it is translated as both “fornication” and “harlotry.”
Fornication (i.e., playing the harlot) is the indulgence of unlawful lust for selfish pleasure, whereas harlotry or prostitution is the indulgence of unlawful lust for money. Their common core is the indulgence of lust. See Of Fornication, Divorce, And Adultery.
Consequently, Matthew 19:9 is perfectly translated as is. See some real Bad Translation.
Question #3: a) Does sex between two virgins living together create a marriage?
b) Doesn’t consensual sex equal marriage, regardless of the situation, and that while sometimes there is a marriage covenant, the covenant ends at the consummation and then it’s just a marriage?
Answer #3: a) Did those two virgins enter into a marriage covenant with each other? Unless it’s marriage, it’s a sin. And did they get their fathers’ blessings?
“Thus says the Lord of hosts: Because you have obeyed the command of Jonadab your father and kept all his precepts and done all that he commanded you, therefore thus says the Lord of hosts: Jonadab the son of Rechab shall never lack a man to stand before me.” Jeremiah 35:18,19
Besides, would you like it if a boy shacked up with your daughter for his personal pleasure as if she were a whore?
b) Consensual sex is still fornication, a sin. Sex in and of itself is NOT marriage.
Biblical Marriage is a covenant between a man and a woman, who join as one for the purpose of making children, with God-assigned authorities, the parents on both sides, agreeing to the union of their offspring.
Besides, let’s check Exodus 22:16,17:
“If a man seduces a virgin who is not pledged to be married and sleeps with her, he must pay the bride-price, and she shall be his wife. If her father absolutely refuses to give her to him, he must still pay the bride-price for virgins.”
In that situation sex occurred, but when the father refused to give her daughter to that particular man, marriage did not materialize; and she did not run away and married him without her father’s approval either.
Question #4: Matthew 5:32 says that, “Whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causes her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced commits adultery.”
Shouldn’t we construe that the cause of fornication in that passage is the same as the cause of fornication in this Deuteronomy 22 passage:
23 If a man happens to meet in a town a virgin pledged to be married and he sleeps with her, 24 you shall take both of them to the gate of that town and stone them to death—the young woman because she was in a town and did not scream for help, and the man because he violated another man’s wife. You must purge the evil from among you.
In other words, the only time a man can put away his woman is when she’s betrothed and commits sexual immorality or fornication, and not when she’s actually married. Besides, that would help stem the tide in our divorce-obsessed culture.
Answer #4: You’re wrong. It’s NOT the only time.
First, Jesus said, “except for fornication.” Period. He didn’t say, “except for fornication during betrothal.”
“Do not add to his words, lest he rebuke you and you be found a liar.” Proverbs 30:6
You’re the one who added “betrothal” by making strange connections with unrelated biblical circumstances.
Second, that Deuteronomy passage is very well defined with a specific situation, as opposed to the passage in Matthew which doesn’t confirm a Deuteronomy-type circumstance.
Third, you are insinuating that the Deuteronomy passage is the only instance of fornication within a “marriage” context that can happen. Wrong.
“It is actually reported that there is sexual immorality among you, and of a kind that even pagans do not tolerate: A man is sleeping with his father’s wife.” 1 Corinthians 5:1
Paul was very explicit in that verse, and just because the Matthew verse you quoted is not as categorical doesn’t automatically make it Deuteronomy-like. If it were, Jesus would have made it very clear.
And finally fourth, you totally neglected this other passage from Deuteronomy 22: 13-21:
“If a man takes a wife and, after sleeping with her, dislikes her and slanders her and gives her a bad name, saying, “I married this woman, but when I approached her, I did not find proof of her virginity,” then the young woman’s father and mother shall bring to the town elders at the gate proof that she was a virgin…
“If, however, the charge is true and no proof of the young woman’s virginity can be found, she shall be brought to the door of her father’s house and there the men of her town shall stone her to death. She has done an outrageous thing in Israel by being promiscuous while still in her father’s house. You must purge the evil from among you.”
That woman, who committed fornication while betrothed, ended up fully married when she was discovered, and the law demanded that she be executed.
However, Jesus removed the death penalty from that law when He told the accusers of the adulteress: “Let any one of you who is without sin be the first to throw a stone at her.” (John 8:7)
Still, He commanded the adulteress in John 8:11 to “go and sin no more (i.e., go and cut off the unlawful relationship).” And in the case of a married woman who fornicates, instead of death He said “to put her away, for the cause of fornication (Matthew 5:32).”
Consequently, now, instead of the death penalty, they get a chance to repent, sin no more, and cut off their unlawful relationships as the new way of purging evil, because evil still needs to be expurgated before facing God on judgment day.
“If your right hand makes you stumble, cut it off and throw it from you; for it is better for you to lose one of the parts of your body, than for your whole body to go into hell.” Matthew 5:30
Question #5: I always understood that according to the bible if a woman has committed fornication (i.e., have had sex) with another man, that alone constitutes marriage.
Answer #5: Fornication is distinct from the sexual act within a marriage covenant. Its literal meaning is to play the harlot (i.e., having sex here and there with no responsibility and no commitment, just for the selfish pleasure of it). Biblical verses after biblical verses prove that. See Of Fornication, Divorce and Adultery.
Marriage takes place when two people, man and woman, enter into a marriage covenant, with parents on both sides agreeing to their siblings being joined as one. Please read The Biblical Marriage Blueprint.
With your understanding, you make the marriage Covenant as ordained by God of no effect. Biblical marriage is sealed with the first copulation of the married couple, but is NOT just the sex. It is a COVENANT whose main goal is to produce children. Otherwise, according to your definition, rape would also be considered marriage.
From our RIPOSTE section
Question: Isn’t religion the bane of human existence?
Answer: Religion, as some interpret and use it, may be. However, a personal relationship with God through Christ Jesus is not. It’s the salvation and redemption of man’s soul.
Religion is man-made with earthly rules and agendas. A relationship with Christ is not. They are two different concepts.
Besides, imagine a world without Christian love and compassion. That would be the bane of human existence.
From our RIPOSTE section
Question: Could there be manipulation at the root of some discrepancies in published bibles?
Answer: Yes, though it’s limited to the word Jew.
In all currently published bibles the word Jew is what is printed, instead of Judahite or Judean as it should be. However, in the 1985 New King James version, published by Thomas Nelson, Inc., there’s a glaring discrepancy:
“…the Judeans, who both killed the Lord Jesus and their own prophets, and have persecuted us; and they do not please God and are contrary to all men.” 1 Thessalonians 2:15
That’s the only place in that version where the word Ioudaios is rightly translated as Judean instead of the conspicuous word Jew.
Which prompts the following questions:
Did Jews bribe Thomas Nelson, Inc. to do it? If so, what did they stand to gain? And do the editors at Thomas Nelson, Inc. actually know that the word Jew is NOT in the bible?
All in all, it simply is deliberate manipulation. Because, simply put, the same Greek word Ioudaios is oddly translated two different ways in that version.
And the only place where it’s different is in that very uncomfortable and crucial verse where we are being led, like sheep to the slaughter, to envisage “Jews” (of today, of course) as not contrary to all men and not the killers of our Lord; while the “Judeans,” of the tribe of Judah, were the actual contrary ones who crucified the Lord and persecuted Christians.
Still, in other verses where the word Jew is maintained throughout, the Talmudic Rabbinists (aka Fake Hebrews or Jews) get to be seen as the Hebrews of old – a misappropriated appellation that is full of benefits for them, including the theft of Palestine to create modern-day Israel.
Consequently, yes, the editors at Thomas Nelson, Inc. do know that the Word Jew is NOT in the Bible, and yet they keep using it.
From our RIPOSTE section
Question: Where did the Christian clergy get their fancy ecclesiastical titles from? Obviously not from the bible.
Answer: Correct. They did not get them from the bible.
Contrary to the Lord’s command, so-called “church leaders” have given themselves fancy titles like Reverend, Monsignor, Pope, and Pastor.
Reverend comes from the word Revere, meaning Worship; Monsignor is from the Italian word Monsignore, meaning My Lord; Pope is from the Greek word Pappas, meaning Father; and finally Pastor comes from the Latin Pastor, meaning Shepherd.
“The Lord is my Shepherd.” Psalm 23:1
Pride and arrogance could not be any clearer. Jesus called His disciples to be servants. Period.
“Whoever would be great among you must be your servant.” Matthew 20:26
From our RIPOSTE section
Question: Is a Christian allowed to eat food deemed unclean by the bible?
Answer: If your conscience reproaches you, don’t eat them.
After the fall, God gave all live animals as food to man.
“Everything that lives and moves about will be food for you. Just as I gave you the green plants, I now give you everything.” Genesis 9:3-4
Later on, many of these animals were declared ceremonially unclean by God in Leviticus 11 and were not to be consumed by the ancient Hebrews.
“It is ceremonially unclean for you.” Leviticus 11:4
However, when Jesus walked the earth, He said the following:
“Don’t you see that nothing that enters a person from the outside can defile them? For it doesn’t go into their heart but into their stomach, and then out of the body.” Mark 7:18-19
Which prompted the author of the book of Mark to say this:
“(In saying this, Jesus declared all foods clean.)” Mark 7:19
What the author meant was that all clean foods were still clean even after one ate “without the ceremonial washing of one’s hands,” which was the actual context.
“Why don’t your disciples live according to the tradition of the elders instead of eating their food with defiled hands?” Mark 7:5
Some also use the Apostle Peter’s vision to declare the same, that all foods are clean. Acts 10:
9 About noon the following day as they were on their journey and approaching the city, Peter went up on the roof to pray. 10 He became hungry and wanted something to eat, and while the meal was being prepared, he fell into a trance. 11 He saw heaven opened and something like a large sheet being let down to earth by its four corners. 12 It contained all kinds of four-footed animals, as well as reptiles and birds. 13 Then a voice told him, “Get up, Peter. Kill and eat.”
14 “Surely not, Lord!” Peter replied. “I have never eaten anything impure or unclean.”
15 The voice spoke to him a second time, “Do not call anything impure that God has made clean.”
16 This happened three times, and immediately the sheet was taken back to heaven.
Unfortunately, Peter’s vision, like all symbolic dreams and visions, was not literally about food. After meditating, Peter understood what God was trying to tell him.
“Peter went inside and found a large gathering of people. He said to them: ‘You are well aware that it is against our law for a Judahite to associate with or visit a Gentile. God has shown me that I should not call anyone impure or unclean.'” Acts 10:27,28
In the beginning, God gave all animals as food to us. He then restricted many of them as “ceremonially unclean” in Leviticus. Subsequently, those Old Covenant “ceremonies” became defunct with the advent of Christ’s New Covenant. However, there’s nothing in the New Testament that specifically revokes the Old Testament ordinances on eating unclean food.
Yet, as Christ succinctly put it, it is not what one eats that defiles a man.
“’What comes out of a person is what defiles them. For it is from within, out of a person’s heart, that evil thoughts come—sexual immorality, theft, murder, adultery, greed, malice, deceit, lewdness, envy, slander, arrogance and folly. All these evils come from inside and defile a person.’” Mark 7:20-23
Consequently, as to unclean food it truly becomes a question of necessity or of conscience.
“Holding faith, and a good conscience.” 1 Timothy 1:19
“‘All things are permissible for me, but not everything is beneficial. All things are lawful for me, but I will not be mastered by anything. Food for the stomach and the stomach for food, but God will destroy them both.” 1 Corinthians 6:12,13
From our RIPOSTE section
Question #1: Why do many Christians fall on their knees to Israel in respect for the so called “God’s Chosen”?
Correct me if I am wrong. Those who believe in Jesus as the son of God are now “God’s Chosen.” I can’t understand why Christians are not taught this. Besides, Jesus made it quite clear in Matthew 21:43.
“The kingdom of God will be taken away from you and given to a people who will bring forth the fruits thereof.” Matthew 21:43
Answer #1: You’re absolutely right.
Figuratively, many “Christians” do fall on their knees in respect to converted Jews and Israel, even though they are taught that Christians are the new chosen people – chosen to love, to do good, and to spread peace.
“But you are a chosen people, a royal priesthood.” 1 Peter 2:9
At the same time, they are also taught by unscrupulous preachers that God has two covenants simultaneously at play, one for Christians and another one for Jews, never quoting the truth of the bible that says quite the opposite.
“By calling this covenant new, he has made the first one obsolete and what is obsolete is outdated.” Hebrews 8:13
In addition, those preachers don’t teach their congregations that Jews today are not the Hebrews of the Bible, that the Old Covenant was never for those who converted but for those of Hebraic blood only, that all Hebrews are irrevocably dead, and that the word Jew is not even in the bible.
Question #2: Are you claiming that the Old Covenant was only with the chosen ethnic Hebrews, while the non-ethnics stood by and watched in exclusion?
God’s covenants have never had ethnic dependencies. From the very beginning, faith and obedience have been the sole covenant requisites.
Answer #2: The purpose of the Old Covenant with the ancient Hebrews (mind you) was to bring forth the Messiah, who Himself was a pure Hebrew of the tribe of Judah. Therefore, the Old Covenant was purely ethnic-centered.
“The LORD said to Moses and Aaron, ‘These are the regulations for the Passover meal: No foreigner may eat it.’ ” Exodus 12:43
However, proselytism within the Old Covenant was allowed and was different from the Covenant itself. That’s why Jesus told the converted Samaritans, who also worshiped Jehovah just like the Hebrews:
“You Samaritans worship what you do not know; we worship what we do know, for salvation is from Judah.” John 4:22
What Jesus meant was that Salvation would come about and bear fruit out of the Old Covenant, with Jesus Himself, a pure Judahite Hebrew, being the Salvation.
Now with the New Covenant things are totally different. It’s no longer ethnic-centered.
“For I am not ashamed of the gospel, because it is the power of God that brings salvation to EVERYONE WHO BELIEVES: first to the Judahite, then to the Gentile.” Romans 1:16
The purpose of the New Covenant is to prepare and deliver a new chosen people throughout all the nations of the earth, who will become a spiritual bride for the Messiah.
“But you are a chosen people, a royal priesthood.” 1 Peter 2:9
“And in your seed [Jesus] all the families of the earth shall be blessed…” Genesis 26: 4
“Let us be glad and rejoice, and give honor to him: for the marriage of the Lamb is come, and his wife has made herself ready.” Revelation 19:7-9
In other words, the Old Covenant brought forth the Groom, while the New will bring forth the Bride.
Question #3: Israel is mentioned many times in the New Testament. Since ancient Israel no longer existed, why was the word Israel used?
Answer #3: In the context of the New Testament, Israel does not refer to the Israel of today nor to the ancient Kingdom of Israel, but to the promise that God made to Jacob, whom God renamed Israel, and which promise was fulfilled in the person of Jesus.
“In you and in your seed shall all the families of the earth shall be blessed.” Genesis 28:14
That seed was to be Jesus the Messiah. In addition, said promise was similar to the one God made to Jacob/Israel’s father, Abraham.
“Now the promises were spoken to Abraham and to his seed. He does not say, ‘And to seeds,’ as referring to many, but rather to one, ‘And to your seed,’ that is, Christ.” Galatians 3:16
Further, Judah was Jacob/Israel’s son and the tribe Jesus was born in. So Israel was interchangeable with Judah, since Judah was Israel’s son by whom the promise was fulfilled.
It’s somewhat not unlike Jesus and His Father who are one and the same. Remember when Philip asked to see the Father, and Jesus answered:
“Have I been so long with you, and yet you have not come to know Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; how can you say, ‘Show us the Father?” John 8:9
Question #4: What’s the difference between a covenant and a contract?
Answer #4: A contract is signed with ink (or a handshake), whereas a covenant is signed with blood. In the Old Testament, the blood of a lamb had to be spilled once a year by the ancient Hebrews, whereas in the New Testament the blood of Jesus Christ was spilled once and for all for the New Alliance.
Today, there’s only one covenant whereby blood is still spilled: marriage. See Sex and the Christian.
Should Israel Exist?
From our RIPOSTE section
Question #1: There are 56 Nations with Islamic majorities, 49 with Catholic majorities, 20 with Protestant majorities, 12 with Orthodox majorities, and 4 with Hindu majorities. Shouldn’t there be 1 with a Jewish majority? In other words, shouldn’t Israel exist?
Answer #1: No.
a. When you take the entire land of Palestine, which the Jews have stolen to create Israel, the Palestinians (Christians and Muslims) constitute a majority, not Jews. That’s why it’s an Apartheid state.
Besides, very few countries, if any, impose religious conformity within their borders or turn the religion of the majority into a mandatory state religion which everyone must follow.
In the US, it’s forbidden by the constitution to have a state religion. If tomorrow the US decides to become a Christian-only country, the Jews would be the first to cry foul, while they hypocritically do the same with Pharisaism in Apartheid Israel.
b. Being part of a religious group does not entitle one to a country. The following religions (just to name a few) have none:
c. Judaism is Pharisaism, not an Abrahamic religion. Today’s Jews are NOT Hebrews (all HEBREWS are irrevocably DEAD), hence they have no right to the land of Palestine. Those who believe otherwise suffer from the Chosen People Syndrome.
d. No country has a “right to exist.” People have that right, and people can exist anywhere. Cases in point: when the Soviet Union was dissolved, its people continued to exist without the “Soviet” moniker; while the US is inhabited by people who gave up their countries of origin in order to make a fresh start in a new land.
Question #2: Wasn’t Israel created as an act of reparation for what the Jews went through during World War 2?
Answer #2: No.
Israel has been in the planning since the late 18th century, way before World War 2 – a war that was orchestrated by Zionist Jews in order to 1) favor their fellow Jewish bankers who stood to make a “killing” loaning money to Western Governments to wage war, and 2) finally give birth to Israel.
And what’s with this “act of reparation” business? Stealing another people’s country in the Middle East, which had nothing to do with what was going on in Europe at that time, is what you call act of reparation? Is that your sense of justice?
Besides, who’s going to pay acts of reparation to the Palestinians for what they have suffered at the hands of the Jews? Who?
Question #3: Wasn’t Israel as a country sanctioned by the United Nations? And doesn’t that make it legitimate?
Answer #3: No and no.
Most countries of the world were bribed and bullied by Britain and the US to shamelessly recommend the partition of Palestine at the United Nations in 1947, though the resolution of said recommendation was non-binding and never implemented by the Security Council.
Question #4: First, Israel won their lands by right of conquest, the oldest and most salient form of land acquisition; therefore yours is an infantile argument. Second, Palestine was a creation of the Roman Emperor Hadrian. But you don’t know that because you obviously don’t know history.
Answer #4: First, as per your argument, it’s okay for China today, for instance, to invade the US in order to acquire more land and expand its Empire, since the right of conquest is the most salient form of land acquisition. And then when Chinese folks begin to take over the homes of Americans (like Israelis did of Palestinians), no one should utter a word. Yours is the argument of a THIEF!
“You shall not steal.” Exodus 20:15
Second, every nation on earth was started at some point by some entity. But you wouldn’t know since you’re having fun picking and twisting the history that suits you. Still, according to you, because the Roman Empire created Palestine, it’s quite just for it to be erased from the map, while Israel maintains Palestinians segregated in the ugliest form of apartheid.
Again, yours is the argument of a THIEF who wishes to appease his conscience by wrangling with false contentions that make no sense. There’s a better way to appease your conscience, since obviously you’re a Zionist Jew leaving on stolen Palestinian land: follow God’s commandments instead.
“You shall not covet your neighbor’s house. You shall not covet your neighbor’s wife, or his male or female servant, his ox or donkey, or anything that belongs to your neighbor.” Exodus 20:17
Question #5: One of the things Israelis love to say is that there’s no such thing as a Palestinian people. How do you respond?
Answer #5: That there’s no such thing either as:
– a Jewish/Israeli people – because Talmudic Judaism is Pharisaism, a non-Abrahamic religion that follows an evil book called the Babylonian Talmud, full of satanic superstitions, hence not a race;
– or an American people – because America is comprised of different races from all over the world that make up a community of inhabitants seeking a better life in a new land, hence not a race either.
The Israelis love to muddy the water in order to take the focus away from the fact that they’re not Hebrews (all Hebrews are irrevocably dead) and have no right to the land of Palestine, a country they’ve stolen and destroyed.
They hoodwink the uninformed into believing that the Palestinians – whether a race or not (like Americans) – do not exist, when said Palestinians have inhabited Palestine for about 2000 years, roughly 1600 more years than Americans have inhabited America.
They also impose on the world their psychotic Islamophobia and unabashed Hebraic pretense, as well as creating all sorts of malicious lies and satanic-inspired false flag terrorism, in order to choke the truth and lure the weak-minded into looking over there (Palestinians???) and not over here (Jewish impostors and terrorists!!!).
Unfortunately, a large number of people, especially brainwashed Christians, swallow the bait hook, line, and sinker, and consequently fail to see the following:
a) modern Israel is not comprised of the 10 Hebrew tribes like in scriptures; b) the country’s current geographical demarcation is not as delineated by God in the book of Joshua; c) the nation would be called Judah instead of Israel, with the Levites sheltered therein, if Jews today were of the tribe of David; and d) the modern impostor state of Israel is made up of Jewish converts who are not Semitic descendants of Abraham.
“To your (Abraham’s) descendants I give this land….” Genesis 15:18
However, Palestinian Arabs are Semites, descendants of Abraham; and therefore rightful inheritors of the land, not converted Jews. To obfuscate that reality, Israel engineered a hate-mongering and demonization campaign against Arabs and Muslims, which metastasized worldwide and seduced many Christians into sanctioning Israel’s foul anti-Christ spirit of “Hate Thy Neighbor.” See Israel Is The Problem.
Question #6: Haven’t the Jews always had a connection to Jerusalem?
Answer #6: No.
The Jews never had a role in that city until Zionists stole Palestine and created modern Israel in 1948. Remember, Jews are converts to Pharisaism (now called Judaism), so they are non-Semitic people from other nations – though they are pretending to be Hebrews. See Pray for the Peace of which Jerusalem?
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